ISTQB CTFL v4.0 - Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Exam
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Total 202 questions
Question #101 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?
A. The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the AI model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file
B. An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report
C. Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters
D. A user is already logged in then on navigating to the AI model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run
Question #102 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n). From the specifications you know that:
• If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued
• If 0 ≤ n ≤ 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number
• If 100 ≤ n ≤ 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued
Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?
• If n < 0, a message "Value out of range" must be issued
• If 0 ≤ n ≤ 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number
• If 100 ≤ n ≤ 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued
Which of the following statements about the equivalence partitions is CORRECT?
A. There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200
B. The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping
C. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same
D. The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large
Question #103 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?
A. Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities
B. Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage
C. Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized
D. Each test level should have an appropriate test objective
Question #104 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?
A. A test manager decides to create a one-page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.
B. A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people.
C. A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person.
D. A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.
Question #105 (Topic: Exam A)
A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?
A. It is an example of DevOps related tools
B. It is an example of collaboration tool
C. It is an example of test implementation tool
D. It is an example of automated unit testing tool
Question #106 (Topic: Exam A)
An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?
A. 9,52001
B. 9, 10, 5000, 5001
C. 10, 5000
D. 9, 10, 11, 4999, 5000, 5001
Question #107 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?
A. Anyone can perform a task they are capable of
B. Sharing same physical workspace is a must
C. Testing is the responsibility of the entire team
D. Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers
Question #108 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.
B. Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.
C. Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.
D. Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.
Question #109 (Topic: Exam A)
Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:
Work Product:
1. Risk register
2. Risk information
3. Test cases
4. Test conditions
Category of work products:
A) Test planning work products
В) Test analysis work products
С) Test design work products
D) Test monitoring and control work products
Work Product:
1. Risk register
2. Risk information
3. Test cases
4. Test conditions
Category of work products:
A) Test planning work products
В) Test analysis work products
С) Test design work products
D) Test monitoring and control work products
A. 1-А, 2-С, 3-В, 4-D
B. 1-С, 2-А, 3-D, 4-В
C. 1-В, 2-D, 3-А, 4-С
D. 1-А, 2-D, 3-С, 4-В
Question #110 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control (QC)?
A. QA is the responsibility of everyone on a project while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated team
B. QA is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.
C. QA is preventive while QC is corrective
D. QA is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement
Question #111 (Topic: Exam A)
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?
A. Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
B. Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
C. Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews
D. Defect reports should be created for every review found
Question #112 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?
A. Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system
B. Testing an application in development environment which is similar to the production environment
C. Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs
D. Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway
Question #113 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?
A. Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects
B. While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain
C. Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects
D. Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing
Question #114 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?
A. Evaluate test basis and test object
B. Create test completion report
C. Define test environment requirements
D. Assess testability of test object
Question #115 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?
A. Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests
B. Application behaviour is written in Given/When/Then format and tests are then written and run
C. First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated
D. Code is refactored first then tests are written and run
Question #116 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following statements is correct?
A. Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts
B. There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library
C. Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis
D. Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models
Question #117 (Topic: Exam A)
A test manager has started a cycle of testing for an e-commerce application. The reason for testing is the change in the protocol for connecting to the payment gateway because of new regulations. Which of the following correctly names this type of testing?
A. Beta testing
B. Retirement testing
C. System integration testing
D. Maintenance testing
Question #118 (Topic: Exam A)
An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.
Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.
Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed and his work was lost.
The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.
Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?
Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.
Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed and his work was lost.
The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.
Which of the following tools had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?
A. Incident Management Tool
B. Configuration Management Tool
C. Backup tool
D. Test Execution tool
Question #119 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?
A. White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage
B. White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures
C. White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code
D. White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements-based coverage
Question #120 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following types of bug are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic testing?
A. Variables that were declared in the code without initialization
B. Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected
C. Crashes of the application
D. A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality
Question #121 (Topic: Exam A)
A tester created a decision table (DT) given below. While reviewing the DT some of the actions for the given conditions were found to be incorrect. The user is trying to view the profile which of the given conditions has CORRECT action(s) listed?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4
Question #122 (Topic: Exam A)
Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?
A. Adding new test cases
B. Diagnosing the root cause
C. Fixing the cause
D. Reproducing the failure
Question #123 (Topic: Exam A)
An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?
A. Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical
B. Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better
C. Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.
D. Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner
Question #124 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following defect report for an Exam Booking System.
Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox
Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has been cancelled.
Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?
Defect ID: ST1041 | Title: Unable to cancel an exam booking | Severity: Very High | Priority: Very High | Environment: Windows 10, Firefox
Description: When attempting to cancel an exam booking using the cancel exam feature, the system does not cancel the exam even though it shows a message that the exam has been cancelled.
Which ONE of the following indicates the information that should be added to the description for reproducing the defect easily?
A. Repeating the test case with different browsers and logging a separate defect for each one of them.
B. The defect Id used is alphanumeric in nature. It should be a number only.
C. Providing better severity and priority. It is not clear why this is a high severity problem as the exams can be booked without any problem.
D. Providing exact steps that lead to this defect. It is not clear from the description if this is a problem for any scheduled exam or for a specific user.
Question #125 (Topic: Exam A)
Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three-point estimation technique:
Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days
Most likely effort (m) -180 person days
Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days
Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days
Most likely effort (m) -180 person days
Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days
A. 20
B. 120
C. 180
D. 197
Question #126 (Topic: Exam A)
Scenario “Big Drop”:
The management of the company “The Big Drop” has instructed the Product Team to configure the discounts in the sales terminals so that frequent customers receive an additional discount on top of a bulk discount, based on the following table.
You must design test cases to represent all POSSIBLE and REAL business scenarios. Test cases should be generated using the input data provided in the table above.
How many POSSIBLE decision rules can be extracted from the table above?
The management of the company “The Big Drop” has instructed the Product Team to configure the discounts in the sales terminals so that frequent customers receive an additional discount on top of a bulk discount, based on the following table.
You must design test cases to represent all POSSIBLE and REAL business scenarios. Test cases should be generated using the input data provided in the table above.
How many POSSIBLE decision rules can be extracted from the table above?
A. 5 decision rules
B. 6 decision rules
C. 32 decision rules
D. 8 decision rules
Question #127 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk?
A. Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.
B. Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.
C. Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.
D. Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.
Question #128 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following iteration planning tasks where a tester can provide value:
• Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)
• Estimate test effort for all testing tasks
• Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object.
Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?
• Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)
• Estimate test effort for all testing tasks
• Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object.
Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?
A. Determining the test strategy
B. Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability
C. Planning the testing for the release
D. Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria
Question #129 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?
A. In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
B. In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
C. In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
D. In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.
Question #130 (Topic: Exam A)
Scenario “Happy Tomatoes”
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
Using the Boundary Value Analysis technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
Using the Boundary Value Analysis technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.
A. {7, 8, 21, 22, 29, 30}
B. {7, 8, 22, 23, 29, 30}
C. {6, 7, 8, 21, 22, 29, 31}
D. {6, 7, 21, 22, 29, 30}
Question #131 (Topic: Exam A)
Scenario “Happy Tomatoes”
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
When running test case TC_59 the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X. Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
When running test case TC_59 the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X. Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?
A. Identification of the test object and test environment
B. A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported
C. Description of the structure of the test team
D. Expected results and actual results
Question #132 (Topic: Exam A)
Scenario “Happy Tomatoes”
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.
An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.
A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.
When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.
Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.
A. {7, 10, 21, 40}
B. {8, 10, 25, 40}
C. {7, 10, 25, 29}
D. {7, 10, 25, 40}
Question #133 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options CANNOT be subjected to static analysis?
A. COTS (Commercial off-the-shelf)
B. Source code
C. BPMN (Business Process Modeling and Notation) models
D. UML (Unified Modeling Language) models
Question #134 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following statements about the objectives of confirmation and regression testing is the BEST?
A. The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.
B. The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in modified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.
C. Confirmation testing aims to confirm that the observed failure is not a false positive. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.
D. The purpose of regression testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been satisfactorily resolved. The purpose of the confirmation testing is to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.
Question #135 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):
[A] Team bonding and learning
[B] Increased test effectiveness/efficiency
[C] Improved quality of the test basis
[D] Better cooperation between development and testing
... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:
1. The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement
2. The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement
3. The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members
4. The possibility of addressing and solving deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements
Which ONE of the following options presents the BEST mapping between benefits and characteristics from retrospectives?
[A] Team bonding and learning
[B] Increased test effectiveness/efficiency
[C] Improved quality of the test basis
[D] Better cooperation between development and testing
... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:
1. The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement
2. The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement
3. The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members
4. The possibility of addressing and solving deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements
Which ONE of the following options presents the BEST mapping between benefits and characteristics from retrospectives?
A. A1 – B4 – C3 – D2
B. A2 – B1 – C4 – D3
C. A4 – B3 – C2 – D1
D. A3 – B2 – C1 – D4
Question #136 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options explains a benefit of independent testing the BEST?
A. The testers can be isolated from the development team and thus avoid acquiring the same bias as the developers.
B. Independent testers may lack information regarding the test object.
C. Independent testers are likely to recognize different types of failures compared to developers.
D. Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for the quality of the product they develop.
Question #137 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?
A. Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled
B. Triggering failures and finding defects
C. Finding errors
D. Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders
Question #138 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:
A. Statements I, III, and IV
B. Statements II, IV, and V
C. Statements I, II, and IV
D. Statements II, III, and V
I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.
II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.
III. Can lead to the detection of defects.
IV. Can find defects directly.
V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.
Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?
II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.
III. Can lead to the detection of defects.
IV. Can find defects directly.
V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.
Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?
Question #139 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes the activities of “testing” and “debugging”?
A. Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
B. Testing triggers a failure that is caused by a defect in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and reproducing them.
C. Testing identifies a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
D. Testing triggers a defect that is caused by an error in the software, whereas debugging is concerned with finding the causes of this defect, analyzing these causes, and eliminating them.
Question #140 (Topic: Exam A)
The following state transition diagram describes the behavior of a control system in terms of its possible modes of operation. The initial start state will be the “NORMAL MODE”.
Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?
Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?
A. NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> DEGRADED MODE >> EMERGENCY MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE
B. NORMAL MODE >> DEGRADED MODE >> NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> DEGRADED MODE >> EMERGENCY MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE
C. NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> DEGRADED MODE >> EMERGENCY MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> NORMAL MODE >> DEGRADED MODE
D. NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> NORMAL MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> EMERGENCY MODE >> DIAGNOSTIC MODE >> NORMAL MODE
Question #141 (Topic: Exam A)
As a result of the joint evaluation of a product version with the customer, it has been concluded that it would be appropriate to retrieve an earlier version of the product and carry out a benchmark. Depending on the result, further development will be carried out based on the current version or the retrieved version.
Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?
Which mechanism, process, and/or technique will allow the specific version (including the testing work products) of a given software product to be restored?
A. Defect management
B. Configuration management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Question #142 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating the creation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?
A. Test design and implementation tools are specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.
B. Static testing tools as they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.
C. DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.
D. Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.
Question #143 (Topic: Exam A)
Your organization's test strategy states that it is desirable to use more than one method for estimating the test effort. You are responsible for establishing the test effort for the next project. Based on historical information, the type of project you are going to estimate has a development-to-test effort ratio of 5:3.
The initial estimate of the development effort is 450 person-days.
Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimated test effort using the ratio-based method?
The initial estimate of the development effort is 450 person-days.
Which ONE of the following options corresponds to the estimated test effort using the ratio-based method?
A. 750 person-days
B. 180 person-days
C. 720 person-days
D. 270 person-days
Question #144 (Topic: Exam A)
User Story:
As a member of the “Agnotoly” association, I want to be able to pay the association's dues through an automatic payment method so that I can forget about payment deadlines.
Acceptance Criteria:
• The member can only pay with “Agnosis Master” credit card.
• The member must register their cell phone number.
• The member must register the credit card in the association's payment system.
• The member must select one of the following credit card payment methods: monthly or annual.
• For the payment system to proceed with the transaction, the member must accept the terms and conditions applicable to the selected payment method (monthly or annual payment).
• If the member accepts the terms and conditions, the payment system sends a message to the member's mobile/cell phone with a one-time password and prompts the member to enter the one-time password.
• The payment method is registered in the association's payment system once the one-time key sent by the payment system is verified.
• Once the payment method is registered, the association's payment system will charge the member on the first business day of the following month.
Remark:
The payment method registration is a transactional process; therefore, if the acceptance criteria 1 through 7 are not met, the payment system will revert to its previous state and will not maintain any information that may have been entered.
In the test cycle that has just ended, the following objectives have been achieved:
• Members of the association have been able to pay association dues with the credit card.
• Dues payments have been made on a monthly basis and for more than a year since the initial payment.
Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered during the above test cycle?
As a member of the “Agnotoly” association, I want to be able to pay the association's dues through an automatic payment method so that I can forget about payment deadlines.
Acceptance Criteria:
• The member can only pay with “Agnosis Master” credit card.
• The member must register their cell phone number.
• The member must register the credit card in the association's payment system.
• The member must select one of the following credit card payment methods: monthly or annual.
• For the payment system to proceed with the transaction, the member must accept the terms and conditions applicable to the selected payment method (monthly or annual payment).
• If the member accepts the terms and conditions, the payment system sends a message to the member's mobile/cell phone with a one-time password and prompts the member to enter the one-time password.
• The payment method is registered in the association's payment system once the one-time key sent by the payment system is verified.
• Once the payment method is registered, the association's payment system will charge the member on the first business day of the following month.
Remark:
The payment method registration is a transactional process; therefore, if the acceptance criteria 1 through 7 are not met, the payment system will revert to its previous state and will not maintain any information that may have been entered.
In the test cycle that has just ended, the following objectives have been achieved:
• Members of the association have been able to pay association dues with the credit card.
• Dues payments have been made on a monthly basis and for more than a year since the initial payment.
Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered during the above test cycle?
A. Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.
B. Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.
C. All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.
D. Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.
Question #145 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?
A. A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.
B. Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.
C. The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.
D. The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.
Question #146 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options is a practice that does NOT TYPICALLY correspond to a shift left approach?
A. Reviewing the specification from the perspective of testing.
B. Write the test cases before writing the code and run the code in a test harness during code implementation.
C. Using continuous integration (CI) and even better continuous delivery (CD).
D. Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.
Question #147 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following list of activities (I to V):
A. Activities III, IV, and V
B. Activities II and V
C. Activities I and V
D. Activities I, III, and IV
I. Test design
I. Test planning
III. Review test basis
IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review
V. Test monitoring and control
Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?
I. Test planning
III. Review test basis
IV. Be a facilitator of a peer review
V. Test monitoring and control
Which ONE of the following options identifies the activities that the test management role is MAINLY focused on?
Question #148 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following options CORRECTLY describes one of the seven principles of the testing process?
A. The objective of testing is to implement exhaustive testing and execute as many test cases as possible.
B. Exhaustive testing can only be carried out using behavior-based techniques.
C. It is impossible to test all possible combinations of inputs and preconditions of a system.
D. Automated testing enables exhaustive testing.
Question #149 (Topic: Exam A)
Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:
Where:
• REQ stands for REQuirement
• TC stands for Test Case
• TC 60 depends on REQ 1
• TC 80 depends on REQ 2
• The priority of the requirement is inherited by the test case
• The priority varies from 1 to 5
• Priority 5 is the highest priority
Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?
Where:
• REQ stands for REQuirement
• TC stands for Test Case
• TC 60 depends on REQ 1
• TC 80 depends on REQ 2
• The priority of the requirement is inherited by the test case
• The priority varies from 1 to 5
• Priority 5 is the highest priority
Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?
A. {TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}
B. {TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}
C. {TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}
D. {TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}
Question #150 (Topic: Exam A)
Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?
A. Test logs that document the results of test execution.
B. Automated test scripts used for test execution.
C. A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.
D. A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.
